Joanna blogged a bit about this article, raising a good point. In the eyes of the law, how can this case be considered “intentional homicide of an unborn child” when abortion clinics do the same thing everyday, only without the scissors (but some of their utensils are still pretty barbaric). Joanna wondered if maybe the difference was the mother’s wishes. Obviously, this particular mother didn’t want her womb cut open with scissors, leading eventually to both her and her child’s deaths. But wait – it’s intentional homicide of an unborn child, not intentional cutting open of a woman’s womb and removing a non-living thing. I think that wording makes all the difference. Otherwise, wouldn’t she just be charged for the murder of the mother and maybe theft at the most?

And here’s another article I saw today on the same theme. A mother forced her 16 year-old daughter to drink turpentine to induce an abortion! And yet her charges are merely “criminal abortion and first-degree cruelty to children” (and I’m assuming the “children” in the charge is referring to her daughter and not her grandchild). True, the baby seems to have survived, but shouldn’t the charge then be “attempted intentional homicide of an unborn child”? I can’t really see a difference. In fact, the only difference I see in motives between this woman and the murderer in the above story is that the murderer might have actually wanted to keep the child as her own, where this woman clearly wanted the child dead. Yet, this murderous grandmother will only get 10 years in prison at the most.

I don’t get it.